Frequently Asked Questions
Dr. Walter R. Martin (09/10/1928 - 06/26/1989) taking questions on his radio program (he was known as the Bible Answer Man ).
Q1: Are all religions equally true?
[This may be a very popular held idea in today's society; however, it is not a rational belief. If such an idea were true, then the opposite would be true, that is, all religious beliefs are not true. You have only two logical choices: 1. Either they are all false; or 2. There is only one true religion.]
Q2: Is it intolerant to claim that the Biblical Jesus Christ or Yeshua Ha-Mashiach is the only way to be saved and true religion?
[No, it is not intolerant to claim something is true to the exclusion of other claims. If we cannot test truth claims, then truth loses all meaning or value. We believe in "legal" tolerance and "social" tolerance, but not "uncritical" tolerance.]
Q3: Are we to judge? What about "Judge not, lest ye be judged?" (Matt. 7:1)
[Christ was rebuking hypocrites who were practicing the same things that they were condemning. Jesus tells us to judge certain kinds of people as being wild savage dogs and pigs (Matt. 7:6). He tells us to judge people as being false prophets (Matt. 7:15). We are told to "judge with righteous judgment" (John 7:24). "But Elymas the sorcerer (for so his name is translated) withstood them, seeking to turn the proconsul away from the faith. Then Saul, who is called Paul filled with the Holy Spirit, looked intently at him and said, "O full of all deceit and all fraud, you son of the devil, you enemy of all righteousness, will you not cease perverting the straight ways of the Lord?" (Acts 13:8-10). "Just as Jannes and Jambres opposed Moses, so these men oppose the truth. They are depraved in mind and their faith is a counterfeit. But they will not get very far because, as in the case of those two men, their stupidity will be plain to everyone." (II Timothy 3:8-9, International Standard Version.) It appears the apostle Paul was not an "Evanjellyfish." It is unfortunate that the Church and especially the Christian college clubs on campuses have been affected with the heresy of non-judgmental, positive-thinking relativism.]
Q4: Are Christians guilty of "Circular Reasoning" when quoting from one book in the Bible such as Isaiah 7:14 to show the fulfillment in another book such as Luke 1:26, 27, 30 & 31?
[No, they are not--this is applied to all scientific research. The Bible is not one book, but consists of a library of 66 books written by more than 40 authors over several thousand years. It would be "circular reasoning" if you quoted from the "Qur'an" to prove the "Qur'an" or quoted from the "Book of Mormon" to prove the "Book of Mormon" because it is one book.
Definition of Circular Reasoning: A formal fallacy that should be avoided when constructing a simple syllogism. If you assume in your premise what you are trying to prove in your conclusion, you end where you began.
Everyone begins somewhere with something, which is called in Greek philosophy "first principles" or "starting points." A materialist begins with the assumption that all is matter--he does not prove that this is true. His denial is a deduction from his first principle of materialism. They assume evolution or materialism, etc. (They are taking these things from faith and deducing from them the rest of their system.
Dr. Greg Bahnsen in some of his tapes is actually referring to what is called in philosophy a "hermeneutical circle." In geometry we begin with maximums or theorems that are assumed as true. For example, geometry is built upon these theorems.
Recommended material on Logic: A Course in Logic--5 CD series (includes Booklet) and The Bible From A to Z--6 CD series .
Q5: How should we Interpret the Bible?
[The Bible is the Word of God and the Prophets, Apostles were inspired by the Holy Spirit to write the Bible in the language of their day. The Bible has many different types of genres such as historical narrative, prose, poetry, dialogue, apocalyptic literature, etc. One's hermeneutics (understanding and use of those literary and linguistic principles) should be not be different for the Bible than any other piece of literature. Since the Bible is composed of different types of literature, it should be interpreted by the looking at the syntax and grammar and the intent of the author. The Bible is Rabbinic literature, not Western European literature. I am often asked the following question, "Do you interpret the Bible literally?" This is a stupid question, which was answered above. Many people think you can interpret the Bible any way you want--I told them that they should take English 101. I also asked them if they read and interpreted the newspaper any way they want. For example, a red car hit a tree--can we interpret this as an airplane hit a tree? There are wrong ways and right ways of interpreting the Bible--see 2 Peter 3:16 ; 2 Timothy 2:15 . Recommended booklet: Hermeneutics--How to Interpret the Bible for all it's worth .]
Q6: What is the Gospel?
[We must confess "that all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God" (Rom. 3:23). "Indeed, there is not a righteous man on earth who continually does good and who never sins." (Eccles.7:20). By nature, sin renders us guilty before the Law in the sight of God. We are born into sin as a result of Adam and Eve. Ezra confesses sin in terms of being guilty before God (Ezra 9:6-13). James mentions "whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, has become guilty of all" (Jas.2:10). Those individuals who trust in their own good works to get them to heaven will not have eternal life. You will be condemned to hell. Praying to Mary, and the saints will not save you! It is idolatry and necromancy--prayer is offered to God, never to any created thing (Rev. 19:10, I Sam. 28 & Lev. 19:31). "For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus" (I Timothy 2:5). (Did you know that the rosary came from Buddhism?--the Catholic Missionaries adopted it when they went to Asia. The ungodly are justified "solely" (i.e. "only") through faith in Jesus Christ. It is "imputed righteousness." Day after day every priest stands and repeatedly offers the same sacrifices that can never take away sins. But when this priest had offered for all time one sacrifice for sins, "he sat down at the right hand of God." Since that time, he has been waiting for his enemies to be made a footstool for his feet. For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified. (Hebrews 10:11-14, ISV.) Rome teaches that Christ dies every time the Mass is prepared. Dr. Scott Hahn (a Roman Apologist) gave a lecture at Princeton University in 2001 and stated that Christ's sacrifice on the cross was not enough! He also bashed the Protestants on their understanding of salvation; however, he could not prove biblically that one has to work for their salvation. Whether you are Protestant or Catholic, the ultimate authority is the Bible. It was finished at the Cross. "It is finished" (John 19:30). That Greek term (tetelestai) was written on bills of sale during the time period of our Lord, and it translates, "Paid in Full!"]
Q7: Christ said, "The Father is greater than I" (John 14:28). What does this mean? The Jehovah Witnesses like to point this out to Evangelicals.
[The word greater as used in the Bible was used in terms of office and work and not in reference to being or nature. By being an obedient servant, Christ was under the Father's authority. John 14:28 is in reference to the economical Trinity, not the ontological Trinity. If the word better was used in the Bible, then it is contrasting superior and inferior beings. Christ is "better" than the angels (Heb. 7:19; 8-6). Yes, Christ is God (Heb. 1:3). Endnotes: Studies in the Atonement by Dr. Robert A Morey, page 73.]
Q8: From which of David's sons was Jesus descended? Luke 3:31 it is traced through Nathan and in Matthew 1:6 Jesus' ancestry is traced through Solomon.
[Joseph was a descendant of King David as well as Jesus. Matthew 1:1-16 gives this genealogy. Since Jesus was Joseph's adopted son, He became legal heir at least for inheritance reasons. Verse 16 in Matthew states: "And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ" (NASB). Joseph is never mentioned as having begotten Jesus--Joseph is referred to as "the husband of Mary", of whom [feminine genitive] Jesus was born. In other words, the contrast is clear--Abraham begat [egennesen] Isaac, etc., but Joseph never begat Jesus. In Luke 3:23-38, the genealogical line is Mary. The record traces her genealogy to Adam (the commencement of the human race). Verse 23 in Luke 3 states that, "Jesus...being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph". This indicates that Jesus was not really the biological son of Joseph (the phrase "as was supposed"). Jesus sole human parent was Mary--her genealogy starting with Heli, who was actually Joseph's father-in-law, in contradistinction to Joseph's own father, Jacob (Matthew 1:16). Mary's line came through Nathan. Nathan was a son of Bathsheba according to 1 Chron. 3:5, the wife of David. Yes, Jesus was descended from David naturally through Nathan and legally through Solomon. Endnotes: Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties by Dr. Gleason L. Archer, page 316.]
Q9: Who are the Nephilim? (Genesis 6)
[The Nephilim are always referred to as "mighty men of old", "men of renown", "giants" or "fallen ones". Why were the males called "sons of God" and the women "daughters of men"? If the women were all unbelievers, why were they called "daughters of men"? This seems to emphasize that the "sons" were not of "men", but from another world. I do not think that the flood was a result of male descendants of Seth married some unbelieving women, but rather the result of demons coming down and mating with humans and produced half-human/half-demon mutants (the Nephilim). This is also found in many ancient legends and many Rabbis interpreted "the sons of God" (Genesis 6:2;Psalm 29:1,Daniel 3:25) in the Bible as referring to messengers/angels--the phrase did change its meaning until much later. (See 2 Peter 2:4, 5.) Since Moses wrote Genesis and the only Biblical book in existence, then Moses understanding of term "sons of God" would be "fallen angels". Endnotes: Satan's Devices/Breaking Free From the Schemes of the Enemy by Dr. Robert A. Morey, pages 79-84.]
Q10: Is the Cabal Biblical or an abomination to Yahweh?
[The historic hermeneutic principles of grammatical exegesis was thrown out by the Cabalists . Cabalism (that which is received) arose in Germany around 1200 A.D. (12th century) among the European Hasidic Jews. It is an occultic form of mysticism and a deliberate rejection of Moses Maimonides and was always considered by Orthodox Jews as occultic. This is why "Bible Numerics" is a fraud. The origins can be traced back to Greek philosophers such as Pythagoras --pantheism, astrology, magic, sorcery, gnosticism, reincarnation, numerology can be attributed to the influence of Greek philosophy. The monstrous Golem and Tarot card were invented by the Cabalists. Yes, the Cabal is an abomination to Yahweh ( see I Samuel 15:22-23.) Endnotes: Bible Numerics: Fact or Fantasy? by Dr. Robert A. Morey, pages 6 & 9.]
